A New Take on 2 Timothy 3:16



Yesterday we looked at several of the translation problems surrounding 2 Timothy 3:16, and some of the ways that translators have sought to solve these problems. In this post, I want to propose my own suggested translation of this verse.

Inspiration 2 Timothy 3:16

The reason this verse is so critical is because it is the only verse in the Bible which specifically speaks of the inspiration of Scripture, and if we have misunderstood the verse, then we have misunderstood inspiration. And if we have misunderstood inspiration, then we have misunderstood how we got our Bible and how to use it.

Before I explain what my suggested translation is, I want to explain how I arrived at it.

The Method to My Madness

First, I’ve been reading and studying theology for over twenty years now. So while I am not a wisened old-timer, I am also not a new kid on the block. This doesn’t mean I’m right, it just means that I’ve been thinking about this stuff for a while.

Second, over the past three years, I’ve done a lot of reading from N. T. Wright, Walter Wink, and Walter Brueggemann which challenged my view of Scripture. More recently, I read some entries in the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament which challenged my thinking regarding the view of inspiration itself. Here are two of these quotes:

2 Tim 3:16 is not using a specific term from the world of enthusiasm, nor referring to any particular theory thereanent. As in the NT as a whole, there is also no mention of the sacredness of Scripture (VI:454).

In the notes, it says,

How far Paul is from an authenticating theory of inspiration may be seen from 1 Cor 7:10, 40; cf. 14:37.

These are challenging quotes, and made me step back and rethink inspiration. I ended up in a very different conclusion than that of the author (Eduard Schweizer), but they were still influential in kick-starting the investigation.

Third, I looked at the grammatical structure of 2 Timothy 3:16, and arranged it in a way that does not seem to be reflected by any other translation, but which seems to make more sense of the verse. I fully admit that I am not a Greek expert, and so it is possible that I made a structural error or violated some rule of Greek grammar. If so, and you are a Greek expert, please point out the error to me.

Fourthly and finally, I recognized that the Greek word, theopneustos, is very rare, and could mean a variety of things. While “inspiration” is one possible translation, it is not a translation which is either the most common, or reflects the ambiguous nature of the word. Furthermore, the word “inspiration” means so many things today, this word leads to much confusion about the doctrine of inspiration.

So, with all of that in mind, let’s move on to my suggested translation of 2 Timothy 3:16.

A New Translation of 2 Timothy 3:16

Let us begin with the grammatical layout. Here is what I propose:

pasa graphē 

theopneustos kai ōphelimos

pros didaskalian

pros elegmon

pros epanorthōsin

pros paideian tēn en dikaiosunē 

In English, it looks like this:

All Scripture

is God-breathed and profitable

for teaching

for reproof

for correction

for training in righteousness

The thing I noticed when laying it out this way is that the verse has three pairs of words. “Teaching” is paired with “training” and speaks of positive instruction (what to do), while “reproof” is paired with “correction” and refers to negative instruction (what not to do). These two sets of words are parallel, meaning that each is a synonym of the other.

The third pair of words are “God-breathed” and “profitable.” Since the other two sets of words are parallel, it seems likely that this third set is also parallel. They are synonyms. In other words, “profitable” is a synonym for “God-breathed.”

Most translations seem to imply that “God-breathed” refers to the source or origin of Scripture (where it came from and how we got it) and “profitable” refers to the purpose and usefulness of Scripture. But if my structure above is correct, then both words refer to the purpose and usefulness of Scripture, and the verse says absolutely nothing about the source or origin of Scripture.

The surrounding context supports this view, as both the preceding and following verses are all about the usefulness of Scripture in our lives.

God WhisperWith this in mind, I began to search for a new way of translating theopneustos to more accurately reflect this, and since pneustos can be translated as “wind, breath, or spirit” thought of “wind of God” (very similar to what Jesus said in John 3:8), “God-spirited” (which was too vague for me, much like “inspiration”), or even “breath of God” or “God’s breath.”

I ended up going with this: “All Scripture is God whispering and is profitable…” 

Why did I translate it this way?

I did some research into how the word theopneustos was used in other Greek literature of the time, and without fail, it is used of poets and philosophers who seem to speak with a certain passion and urgency that makes people listen and obey what they are saying. But this was only in regard to what they were speaking. If someone wrote down what they said, and then passed it on, the written record of what had been spoken was never thought of as theopneustos (See TDNT VI:454). Inspiring words, once they were written down, lost their inspiring power.

Paul is saying that this is not true of Scripture. The written word of God, unlike any other writing, still maintains the breath of God upon it. When we read it, it is as if God is speaking it to us all over again, fresh, for our own ears. It is not simply a “divinely inspired record of what God said in history” but is the actual, living, voice of God, speaking directly into our lives. It is so real, you can feel His breath.

In being written, Scripture did not lose it’s “Godness.” It is not God, but is the voice of God, the breath of God, the whisper of God into our ears. This idea also fits with other biblical passages, such at 1 Kings 19:12 and Matthew 10:27 (Luke 12:3).

Paul’s point in putting it this way is not to give us a book of theological trump cards by which we can denounce as heretics all who disagree with us. No. Theopneustos refers to the profitability of Scripture in our own lives. Scripture is not given for us to beat others over the head with, but is for God to encourage us, and help us understand Himself in a deeper way.

Maybe we could say that 2 Timothy 3:16 should more properly be placed on the theological idea of “Illumination of Scripture” where God helps us understand and apply Scripture through the help of the Holy Spirit.

So in the end, it seems that 2 Timothy 3:16 is saying that Scripture is the voice of God, the breath of God, even the whisper of God into our lives in a way that makes it profitable even for us today. Though written, it did not lose it’s “inspiring” power to make us more like Jesus.

Conclusion

If you do not like “All Scripture is God whispering…” and insist on continuing to use the word “inspired” might I suggest that at least you modify it to “inspiring”? The verse would then read: “All Scripture is inspiring and profitable…” I would be happy with this translation as well. It misses the “spoken voice of God” element, but retains the parallel between “inspiring” and “profitable” and shows that the verse is more about the function and purpose of Scripture, and not about the origin.


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  • http://antwrites.com Ant Writes

    Great article. Well researched. I would agree with your conclusions. What did you use to look up Greek works in non-Biblical literature? Did you just filter out the biblical references in Google?

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      No, I didn’t use Google at all. I used the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament and BibleWorks. Both are expensive, but are excellent resources for this sort of study.

      • http://antwrites.com Ant Writes

        I have BW8. But the only non-Biblical lit it searches is the Ante-Nicean father’s by Schaff. I used to have a reference of Homeric Greek references in the NYT, but that unfortunately is gone :(

  • Tara

    Refreshing perspective.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Thanks Tara!

  • http://www.bobbyauner.blogspot.com Bobby

    as you might expect from me, I was incredibly skeptical about this series of posts and was loading up my guns to come here a blazin’. I stuck with you, trying to give you the benefit of the doubt knowing that often times you word things in such a way to illicit a reaction, so I decided to watch and listen. I’m glad I did. I love your translation and I’m gonna subscribe to these comments to see if any greek scholars out there have anything profitable to add or subtract.

    The fact that I thought I had guns to load in the first place seems silly now. Good job, bro.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Bobby,
      Gotta always keep the guns loaded! Ha ha! Besides, some of the “ramifications” of what I say above might still require you to come out blazing. We’ll see though…

  • http://antwrites.com Ant Writes

    I was a linguistics major in college and I learned Attic Greek, not necessarily Koine Greek. I’m better with grammar than vocabulary, but the grammar seems correct. The word pairing (I forget the term) is a Hebrew poetic method, which would not have been known to Timothy, since he wasn’t Jewish. (Well, TECHNICALLY he was because his mom was Jewish), so I’m not positive if the word play really matters, since an uncircumcised Gentile would NEVER be allowed to read the Torah, so he would not have been familiar with it. I do however believe that Jewish expressions are used throughout the NT, since even if the NT was not written in Aramaic, they THOUGHT in Aramaic as their letters were being dictated. Since 2 Timothy was Paul’s last letter, I still don’t think Paul was going to use Hebrew poetic word play in the last piece of advice he would ever give Timothy. But, I could be wrong. I’ve been known to be wrong. :)

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Anthony,
      You are right about the Hebrew poetic form. I didn’t mention it, but it is a basic “chiasm.” Whether Timothy would be aware of it or not, we cannot know. But Paul might have included it since he was schooled in Hebrew thinking and thought patterns, and was Jewish himself. But either way, the argument doesn’t fully depend on the poetic structure.

  • http://www.blessingthebeloved.blogspot.com Tammy Carter

    Wow, Jeremy…that seems to EXPAND the one verse as inspiration for the entire bible! That blows my mind, but helps me trust that his breath is revealing His Word to me as He would have me understand it.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Tammy,

      Yeah, it seems to make the Bible “more alive” rather than less. But there might be practical ramifications that I fear people will not be comfortable with. I might get to some of them later this week. We’ll see how it goes….

  • http://www.graceground.com Sam

    Without some research, my knowledge of Koine Greek is inadequate to find any problems with your translation. Even if some Greek scholar should quibble, your understanding of what Paul is trying to say sounds better than any other I’ve read or heard.

    Yes, we can know it is Scripture when God uses it to speak into our lives. Undoubtedly God uses other writings, events, people and circumstances to also speak into our lives. This is not saying that all are equal, but that God does not use Scripture alone to speak to us. I am especially wary of people whose doctrine is based on a handful of verses (and little knowledge of the rest of the Bible or other methods of God communicating with us).

    I especially like the statement “Scripture is not given for us to beat others over the head with, but is for God to encourage us, and help us understand Himself in a deeper way.” If we believe God uses it to speak to us, I think God is speaking to us about how we ourselves can follow Jesus. Scripture is a mirror into which we look and see ourselves, not a magnifying glass to be used to examine the lives of others.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Sam,
      Absolutely right about the purpose of Scripture. It points us to Jesus and how to live like Him in the world. Thank you!

      I haven’t been able to get over to Grace Ground in a week or so. Heading over there now to see if you have any new posts…

  • Georgia Ana Larson

    Thank you, Jeremy, for your own vocalizing of truth. Your exegetical answers speak to the metaphysician and poet in me as well as to the scholar who loves and wishes to obey the Voice of the One.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      A metaphysician? I can’t say I’ve ever heard that term before. What is it exactly?

  • Georgia Ana Larson

    Jeremy, a scientist asks what a thing is in itself; a metaphysician asks what does a thing mean; a poet asks what is a thing like. :)

  • http://www.coastbible.org Neil Anderson

    Of course, the parallel/chiastic structure you refer to (each preceded by “for”, Gk. pros) doesn’t include the clause “God-breathed and profitable” (2 Tim 3:16a). It’s just not possible to ‘require’ that the descriptions in this initial clause be synonymous with one another when they fall outside the chiastic parallels in 2 Tim 3:16b. Since your translation largely depends on this, I think it a very unlikely rendering of the term “theopneustos.”

    2 Tim 3:16 remains an excellent defense of the doctrine of the inspiration of Scripture.

    • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

      Neil,
      Good job noticing this. I was wondering if anyone would. It is the primary weakness in my argument.

      So ultimately, the decision comes down to whether the kai between theopneustos and ophelimos is explanatory or contrasting.

      If I am wrong, and the kai is not explanatory, then theopneustos is not defined in any way in the context. If so, then we must therefore go to contemporary usage in other Greek literature to determine it’s meaning. When we do this, we see that theopneustos refers ONLY to the spoken word, and never to the written word. Therefore, Paul would be saying that the Word of God was inspired when it was spoken, but this inspiration does not apply to the written word. So in this scenario, we are left without any inspiration of Scripture at all.

      I prefer to think that Paul knew this word was tricky, and wanted to give some divine authority to the written word, and so his kai in 3:16 between theopneustos and ophelimos is a comparative kai rather than contrasting. He uses the tricky word theopneustos and then uses an explanatory kai to help define it, thus linking it with ophelimos, “profitable.”‘

      • http://www.coastbible.org Neil Anderson

        >>”If I am wrong, and the kai is not explanatory, then theopneustos is not defined in any way in the context. If so, then we must therefore go to contemporary usage in other Greek literature to determine it’s meaning. When we do this, we see that theopneustos refers ONLY to the spoken word, and never to the written word. Therefore, Paul would be saying that the Word of God was inspired when it was spoken, but this inspiration does not apply to the written word. So in this scenario, we are left without any inspiration of Scripture at all.”

        Per my reply in your post entitled, “Is the Doctrine of Inspiration Biblical?” (July 26, 2011)…

        “That such inspired (“God spoke… moved by the Holy Spirit,” 1 Pet 1:21) origins of prophecy could not extend to the written Word seems, to me, to be a bit picky :) . It’s not unreasonable to suppose that the recipients of inspired prophecy were capable of also documenting that same prophecy in written form. I’m not suggesting a dictation theory, I’m simply suggesting that man is capable of transmitting conversations/ideas in other forms, while preserving original content/intent.”

        • http://www.tillhecomes.org Jeremy Myers

          Neil,
          I responded there, but let me make an additional point here.

          Anybody who has heard a powerful sermon, and then written it down word-for-word and tried to “re-preach” it, or even distribute it in written form recognizes that most of the power is lost in transmission.

          Why does this happen? Because the power is not in the exact words themselves, even if accurately recorded.

          Ultimately, what I am trying to say in these posts is something along these lines:

          So what if we have an exact transmission (as I believe we do) of what was originally said? This doesn’t make the biblical text powerful any more than a written sermon is as powerful as the original spoken sermon.

          Yet it seems that according to the reading of 2 Timothy 3:16 which I presented, God does something through the reading of Scripture which makes it powerful and profitable once again.

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  • mark

    i think i like your study on the verses but i like the fact that the epistles were written for believers in Christ and the gospels were for the lost. so the result is although we may be able to use scripture to witness to those that have no love for GOD by using scripture it is the power and authority of that scripture that produces a saving faith. the power of the work at the cross is what saves people not the nuances of language, although it does challenge us to be like the bereans. this is not in any way a criticism of your study but rather a exhortation to conclude any study back to it’s origin and that is that Christ came, he was crucified and that he rose from the dead in fulfillment of prophecy. i do not know any greek, hebrew or aramaic so i need to depend on scholars for meaning for those words written but i know that the Spirit of GOD, my comforter, will not let his words come back void. thanks for your time

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